1 [P.T.O.
5 / 1
Duration : 2 Hours] [Maximum Marks : 100
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
(i) The question paper is in the form of Test-Booklet containing 100 (Hundred) questions. All questions
are compulsory. Each question carries four answers marked (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which only
one is correct.
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ensure that it contains all the pages, i.e., 100 questions (70 in Part-A + 30 in Part–B). Discrepancy,
if any, should be reported by the candidate to the invigilator immediately after receiving the Test-
Booklet.
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100 rows (70 in Part-A + 30 in Part–B) containing four circles each. One row pertains to one question.
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are advised to be careful in handling it and writing the answer on the Answer-Sheet.
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DO NOT OPEN THIS QUESTION BOOKLET UNTIL ASKED TO DO SO.
Written Test Paper , 2022
Name of Applicant ............................................................ Answer Sheet No. ....................................
Application No. : SVSU/2020/Estt/NT/ ......................... Signature of Applicant : ............................
Date of Examination: 28 / 01 / 2022 Signature of the Invigilator(s)
1. ..................................................
2. ..................................................
Test Booklet
Series
Time of Examination : .......................................
A
STAFF NURSE
Test Booklet No .
5
Paper No.
2
3 [P.T.O.
1. Which is the largest organ of the body -
(A) Liver
(B) Brain
(C) Kidney
(D) Skin
2. The body of adult person weighs 60 Kgs,
then total body fluid in him is -
(A) 54 Kgs
(B) 48 Kgs
(C) 38 Kgs
(D) 28 Kgs
3. The example of ECF is -
(A) CSF
(B) Blood
(C) Interstitial fluid
(D) All of these
4. The correct order of layers of epidermis from
outer to inner side is -
(A) Corne um -lucidu m -gr an ulosum -
germinative
(B) Corne um -gra nul osu m -l u cidum -
germinative
(C) Germinative- granulosum-corneum-
lucidum
(D) Germinative -co rneum- lucidum-
granulosum
PART–A
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5. The cell from which human body develops
is known as -
(A) Overy
(B) Ovum
(C) Zygote
(D) Sperm
6. The epithelial tissue found lining the unrinary
bladder is -
(A) Sqamous
(B) Columnar
(C) Ciliated
(D) Transitional
7. The epithelial tissue found in uterine
tubes is -
(A) Sqamous
(B) Columnar
(C) Ciliated
(D) Transitional
8. The endocrine gland, which controls the
functions of other endocrine glands is -
(A) Adrenal
(B) Pancreas
(C) Pituitary
(D) Thyroid
4
9. The bone is not forming the boundary of
the cranial cavity -
(A) Parietal
(B) Sphenoid
(C) Mandibular
(D) Temporal
10. The substance involved in inflamatory
reactions is -
(A) Renin
(B) Histamine
(C) Heparin
(D) Thyroxine
11. The volume of the voice produced by a
man depends upon -
(A) Length of the vocal cords
(B) Force with which the cord vibrates
(C) Shape of the mouth
(D) Tightness of the vocal cords
12. The number of polar bodies are released at
the time of ovum discharge-
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
13. The patients present symptoms at the time
of acute respiratory failure -
(A) Hypercapnia
(B) Hypoventilation
(C) Hypoxia
(D) All of these
14. The partial pressure of oxygen in
deoxygenated and oxygenated blood
respectively are -
(A) 100 mm Hg & 140 mm Hg
(B) 60 mm Hg & 120 mm Hg
(C) 40 mm Hg & 100 mm Hg
(D) 20 mm Hg & 60 mm Hg
15. The life span of a sperm is-
(A) 48-72 hours
(B) 24-48 hours
(C) 12-24 hours
(D) 0-12 hours
16. The congenital absence or closure of a
normal body orifice or tubular organ is
called -
(A) Fistula
(B) Atresia
(C) Hernia
(D) Stenosis
5 [P.T.O.
17. The largest volume of air which can be
expelled from the lungs during maximal
expiration is called -
(A) Expiratory reserve volume
(B) Residal volume
(C) Inspiratory reserve volume
(D) Tidal volume
18. The following tissue is widely and
abundantly distributed in human body is -
(A) Muscular
(B) Lymph
(C) Connective tissue
(D) Cartilagenous
19. The eating behaviour in human beings is
controlled by -
(A) Pancreas
(B) Hypothalamus
(C) Thyroid
(D) Pineal gland
20. The synthesis of glucose from fat is
called -
(A) Glycolysis
(B) Glyconeogenesis
(C) Krebs cycle
(D) Saponification
21. Gleno-humeral joint is also called -
(A) Hip joint
(B) Knee joint
(C) Shoulder joint
(D) Elbow joint
22. Which blood group can be administered to
a patient in emergency when his blood
group is not known?
(A) 'O' negative
(B) 'O' positive
(C) 'AB' negative
(D) 'AB' positive
23. The major constituent of the bone is -
(A) Calcium sulphate
(B) Sodium chloride
(C) Magnesium sulphate
(D) Calcium phosphate
24. The protein factory in the human body
cell is -
(A) Nucleus
(B) Cytoplasm
(C) Golgi apparatus
(D) Ribosome
5 / 3
6
25. The posterior pituitary is mainly consists
of -
(A) T cells
(B) C cells
(C) Neuronal projections
(D) Beta cells
26. Bell's palsy is a disorder of the cranial
nerve -
(A) 9th
(B) 7th
(C) 5th
(D) 3rd
27. Which part of the brain control the body
temperature ?
(A) Pons
(B) Amygdala
(C) Hypothalamus
(D) Liver
28. The 'Adam's Apple' is formed by -
(A) Epiglottis
(B) Cricoid cartilage
(C) Thyroid cartilage
(D) Hyoid bone
29. Depolarisation in a nerve action potential is
due to -
(A) Opening of Pottasium channels
(B) Opening of Sodium channels
(C) Opening of Calcium channels
(D) Closing of Sodium channels
30. The recommended flow rate of oxygen via
nasal cannula is -
(A) 1- 4 litres/minute
(B) 1- 6 litres/minute
(C) 4- 6 litres/minute
(D) 6- 8 litres/minute
31. The size of intrvenous cannula used for
neonate is -
(A) 24 gauze
(B) 22 gauze
(C) 20 gauze
(D) 18 gauze
32. Which of the following is not a physician
prescribed intervention?
(A) Drug administration
(B) Ordering diagnostic test
(C) Performing wound care
(D) Elevating an edematous limb
7 [P.T.O.
33. The practice of nursing is regulated by -
(A) State nurse practice Act
(B) Innstitutional policies
(C) Fedral guidelines & regulations
(D) International standards & Codes
34. Kussmaul breathing is associated with -
(A) Atelactasis
(B) Bronchial asthma
(C) Diabetic ketoacidosis
(D) Heart Failure
35. Rhythmic waxing and waning of respiration
is called -
(A) Hyperventilation
(B) Hypoventilation
(C) Orthopnoea
(D) Cheyne-strokes respiration
36. What should be the size of the endotracheal
tube for a newborn weighing 2 to 3 kgms.?
(A) 4.0
(B) 3.50
(C) 3.0
(D) 2.50
37. Clinical death is also known as -
(A) Biological death
(B) Brain death
(C) Legal death
(D) Accidental death
38. Treatment of severe dehydration is -
(A) Start DNS immediately
(B) Start colloids immediately
(C) Start Ringer's Lactate immediately
(D) Combination of 5% dextrose with
Ringer's Lactate immediately
39. Common complication after perforation of
appendix -
(A) Haemorrhage
(B) Peritonitis
(C) PID
(D) Intestinal obstruction
40. Linear burrowing of a mite at finger webs,
wrists, elbow, ankles and penis is seen in
case of -
(A) Scabies
(B) Impetigo
(C) Psoriasis
(D) Herper zoster
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8
41. Deep vein thrombosis renders a person at a
risk of -
(A) Pulmonary embolism
(B) Shock
(C) Stroke
(D) Heart attack
42. CPR & defibrillation should be initiated in
a kind of arrhythmia -
(A) Atrioventricular block
(B) Premature Ventricular contraction
(C) Atrial fibrillation
(D) Ventricular fibrillation
43. Severe dyspnea, orthopnea, pallor,
tachycardia and frothy blood tinged sputum
is seen in -
(A) Left heart failure
(B) Right heart failure
(C) Pulmonary edema
(D) Congestive heart failure
44. An early manifestation of laryngeal
cancer is -
(A) Stomatitis
(B) Hoarseness
(C) Dysphagia
(D) Airway obstruction
45. Paradoxical respiration is most commonly
seen in -
(A) Flail chest
(B) Obstructive airway disease
(C) Cardiac tamponade
(D) Congestive heart failure
46. An early indication for development of
hypocalcimia is -
(A) Memory changes
(B) Tingling sensation in the fingers
(C) Ventricular dysrhythmias
(D) Depressed reflexes
47. The life span of human platelets is -
(A) 10-12 minutes
(B) 10-12 hours
(C) 10-12 days
(D) 10-12 months
48. The life span of human RBCs is -
(A) 120 minutes
(B) 120 hours
(C) 120 days
(D) 120 months
9 [P.T.O.
49. The human blood cells are enucleated -
(A) RBC
(B) WBC
(C) Platelets
(D) Both RBC & Platelets
50. A patient with liver fail having edema is
most likely to recieve -
(A) Diuretics
(B) Laxatives
(C) Antidiuretics
(D) Beta blockers
51. The drug of choice for methicillin resitant
staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is -
(A) Clindamycin
(B) Vanomycin
(C) Erythromycin
(D) Gentamycin
52. Which of the following antitubercular
medication has the side effect of peripheral
neuritis?
(A) Pyrazinamide
(B) Isoniazid
(C) Rifampicin
(D) Ethambutol
53. A patient came to ED unconscious with
pin point pupil, lacrimation and history of
substance abuse. Which drug to be
administered to him?
(A) Naloxone
(B) Lorazepam
(C) Flumazenil
(D) Naltrexone
54. A patient with DVT is advised Low
Molecular Heparin. At which site, the nurse
should administer this ?
(A) Oral
(B) IM
(C) IV
(D) SC
55. Which drug may cause 'Gray-baby
syndrome' ?
(A) Chloramphenicol
(B) Gentamycin
(C) Penicillin
(D) Tetracycline
56. Which of the following is not a side effect
of salbutamol ?
(A) Muscle tremors
(B) Sedation
(C) Palpitation
(D) Nervousness
10
57. Which is the drug of choice for severe &
complicated malaria ?
(A) Quinine
(B) Artesunate
(C) Primaquine
(D) Chloroquine
58. Antidote for heparin is
(A) Protamine sulphate
(B) Vitamin K
(C) Aminocarpoic acid
(D) Aminodarone
59. The values of Correlation Coefficient varies
between
(A) –0.5 to +0.5
(B) –0.75 to +0.75
(C) < –1.0 to < +1.0
(D) None of these
60. The constant presence of a disease or
infection within a given geographical area
is called -
(A) Sporadic
(B) Epidemic
(C) Endemic
(D) Pandemic
61. Koplik's spots are clinical feature of -
(A) Chicken pox
(B) Pertusis
(C) Cholera
(D) Measles
62. Which of the following is is not constuent
of vital statistics?
(A) Birth rate
(B) Morbidity & Mortality rate
(C) Educational rate
(D) Life expectancy
63. Route of administration of PPD for
Tuberculin Test is-
(A) SC
(B) ID
(C) IM
(D) IV
64. The first referral level in the health care
system is -
(A) Primary Health Care
(B) Secondary Health care
(C) Tertiary Health Care
(D) Premordial Health Care
11 [P.T.O.
65. Housefly is responsible for spread of -
(A) Diarrhoea
(B) Dysentary
(C) Cholera
(D) All of these
66. When did the Mental Health Bill became
Mental Health Act ?
(A) 1912
(B) 1985
(C) 1987
(D) 1990
67. A freshly prepared ORS solution should be
used within -
(A) 24 hours
(B) 48 hours
(C) 12 hours
(D) 06 hours
68. Ripeness of cervix is assessed by -
(A) Bishop score
(B) Apgar score
(C) Downe score
(D) New ballard score
69. Uterus is palpable at the level of symphysis
at -
(A) 8th week
(B) 10th week
(C) 12th week
(D) 14th week
70. Normal duration for involution of Uterus
is -
(A) 2 weeks
(B) 4 weeks
(C) 6 weeks
(D) 8 weeks
12
PART–B
71. Rojgar Bazaar 2.0 portal, which was seen
in the news recently, is associated with
which state/UT?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Bihar
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Assam
72. Which city has become the guest city in the
world to implement 100 percent paperless
strategy in its government functioning?
(A) New Delhi
(B) Tel Aviv
(C) Abu Dhabi
(D) Dubai
73. In which of the following year, Lucknow
pact was signed by Congress and Muslim
League?
(A) 1915
(B) 1916
(C) 1917
(D) 1918
74. Which of the following is/ are Constitutional
Body/Bodies.
1. GST Council
2. NITI Aayog
3. Election Commission
4. Union Public Service Commission
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2, 3, and 4 only
(D) All the above
75. Who won the 'Padma Vibhushan 2020'
award under the 'Public Affairs' category?
(A) Shinzo Abe
(B) Gotabaya Rajapaksa
(C) Sheikh Hasina
(D) K P Sharma Oli
76. Which of the following separates lesser
Himalayas from Shivalik?
(A) Suture Zone
(B) Main Central Thrust
(C) Great Boundary Fault
(D) Main Boundary Fault
77. Choose the plural of the given word:
"Bacillus"
(A) Bacilluses
(B) Bacissusis
(C) Bacilli
(D) Bacilliusess
78. Choose the antonym of the given word:
"Benign"
(A) Evil
(B) Damaged
(C) Poor
(D) Sick
13 [P.T.O.
79. Which of the following is a synonym of
word: "Tyrant"
(A) Dictator
(B) Timorous
(C) Laborious
(D) Rapport
80. Choose the indirect speech for the sentence
given below?
He said to me, "You were reading the novel.
(A) He told me that I was reading the
novel
(B) He told me that I had been reading
the novel.
(C) He told me that I have been reading
the novel.
(D) He told me that I would have been
reading the novel.
81. Find out the error part in following sentence.
The real important thing/of our life is our
childhood/ which discriminates us from
animals.
(A) The real important thing
(B) Of our life is our childhood
(C) Which discriminates us from animals
(D) No error
82. Find out the error part in following sentence
I warned him/for the danger/he was going/
to face during the hiking.
(A) I warned him
(B) For the danger
(C) He was going
(D) To face during the hiking
83. What will be the 21st term in the series
3, 9, 15, ?
(A) 117
(B) 121
(C) 123
(D) 129
84. Complete the following series.
AYBZC, DWEXF, GUHVI, JSKTL, ……?
(A) MQORN
(B) MQNRO
(C) NQMOR
(D) QMONR
85. Hemoglobin : Iron : : Chlorophyll : ….?
(A) Copper
(B) Magnesium
(C) Cobalt
(D) Calcium
86. EWS quota introduced by Government
of India was implemented by which
constitutional amendment?
(A) 101st
(B) 103rd
(C) 102nd
(D) 105th
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Directions (Questions 87 to 89) :
Study the information given below to answer
these questions:
A is the father of two children B and D,
who are of different sexes.
C is B's spouse.
E is of the same sex as D
B and C have two children: F, who is of the
same sex as B, and G, who is of the same
sex as C.
E's mother H, who is married to L, is the
sister of D's mother, M.
E and E's spouse I, have two children J and
K, who are of the same sex as I.
No person has married more than once and
no children have been born out of wedlock.
The only restrictions on marriage are that
marriage to a sibling, to a direct descendant,
or to more than one person at the same time
is forbidden.
87. According to the rules, D can marry
(A) F only
(B) G only
(C) J only
(D) F J or K
88. If the generation of F and K's parents and
their siblings contains more females than
males, then which of the following must be
true?
(A) K and G are of the same sex.
(B) A is of the same sex as D.
(C) J is a male.
(D) There are more females than males in
F and K's generation.
89. Who is F?
(A) D's niece or nephew
(B) G's brother
(C) G's sister
(D) B's daughter
90. Kotla lake is situated in which of the
following district of Haryana?
(A) Mewat
(B) Faridabad
(C) Palwal
(D) Gurugram
91. Arrange the following districts in ascending
order in terms of population density as per
the Census of India 2011.
1. Hisar
2. Faridabad
3. Bhiwani
4. Gurugram
(A) 3-1-4-2
(B) 1-3-4-2
(C) 1-3-2-4
(D) 3-1-2-4
92. B is the husband of P, Q is the only grandson
of E, who is wife of D and Mother-in-Law
of P. How is B related to D?
(A) Nephew
(B) Son
(C) Son-in-Law
(D) Cousin
15 [P.T.O.
93. Which of the following pairs are correctly
matched.
Vitamin Deficiency Diseases
1. Vitamin A Xerophthalmia
2. Vitamin B
2
Reddish Eyes
3. Vitamin D Rickets
4. Vitamin E Less Fertility
(A) 1, 2 and 4 only
(B) 2, 3 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) All the above
94. Among six members P, Q, R, G, S, and M
sitting along a circle facing the centre.
I. R is between G and P.
II. M is between P and S.
What is the position of Q?
(A) To the immediate left of G
(B) To the immediate right of S
(C) Can't be determined
(D) None of the above
95. Vikas is twice as good a workman as Suresh
and is therefore able to finish a piece of
work in 30 days less than Suresh. In how
many days they can complete the whole
work; working together?
(A) 40 days
(B) 30 days
(C) 20 days
(D) 10 days
96. When twice the original number is divided
by the same divisor, the remainder is 11.
What is the value of the divisor?
(A) 33
(B) 35
(C) 37
(D) 39
97. A bus can travel 50% faster than a car. Both
start from point A at the same time and reach
point B 75 kms away from A at the same
time. On the way, however, the bus lost
about 12.5 minutes while stopping at the
bus-stops. The speed of the car is:
(A) 120 kmph
(B) 130 kmph
(C) 140 kmph
(D) 150 kmph
98. The simple interest on a certain sum for
8 months at 4% per annum is Rs. 129 less
than the simple interest on the same sum for
15 months at 5% per annum. The sum is:
(A) Rs 3500
(B) Rs 3600
(C) Rs 3700
(D) Rs 3800
99. A spherical metal ball of radius 6 cm is
melted and small metal balls of radius 3 mm
are made. The total number of possible small
metal balls is
(A) 7000
(B) 8000
(C) 9000
(D) 10000
100. If the cost price of 120 apples is equal to
the selling price of 100 apples, what is the
profit percent in this transaction?
(A) 5%
(B) 10%
(C) 15%
(D) 20%
16
ROUGH WORK
Sr.no.Answer Sr.no. Answer Sr.no
.
Answer Sr.no. Answer
1 D 26 B 51 B 76 D
2 C 27 C 52 B 77 C
3 D 28 C 53 A 78 A
4 A 29 B 54 D 79 A
5 C 30 A 55 A 80 B
6 D 31 A 56 B 81 A
7 C 32 D 57 B 82 B
8 C 33 A 58 A 83 C
9 C 34 C 59 C 84 B
10 B 35 D 60 C 85 B
11 B 36 B 61 D 86 B
12 A 37 B 62 C 87 C
13 D 38 C 63 B 88 C
14 C 39 B 64 B 89 A
15 A 40 A 65 D 90 A
16 B 41 A 66 C 91 A
17 A 42 D 67 A 92 B
18 C 43 C 68 A 93 D
19 B 44 B 69 C 94 C
20 B 45 A 70 C 95 C
21 C 46 B 71 A 96 C
22 A 47 C 72 D 97 A
23 D 48 C 73 B 98 B
24 D 49 D 74 B 99 B
25 C 50 A 75 A 100 D
5StaffNurse
